GENERAL BIOLOGY

PRACTICE EXAM II

SPRING 2004

 

                              

1. A somatic cell having two of each type of chromosome has a(n)_______chromosome number

a. diploid

b. haploid

c. abnormal

d. normal gamete

 

2. A ________ is where microtubules attach to a chromosome during cell division

a. chromatid

b. centromere

c. plasma membrane

d. cleavage furrow

 

3. Interphase is a part of the cell cycle when_____________

a. the entire cell divides

b. DNA replicates

c. the cell rests

d. crossing over occurs

 

4. At the end of mitosis, the chromosome number of a daughter cell is _______ the parent cell

a. identical to

b. one-half

c. rearranged compared to

d. doubled compared to

 

5. Mitosis and cytokinesis  function in the ___________

a. development of an organism

b. growth and tissue repair of eukaryotes

c. germ cell formation

d. both a and b

 

6. During____________ of mitosis, sister chromatids separate in a cell

a. prophase

b. metaphase

c. anaphase

d. telophase

 

7. Sexual reproduction requires____________

a. meiosis

b. gamete formation

c. haploid germ cells

d. all of the above

 

8. Homologous chromosome pairs________

a. carry the same genes

b. interact at meiosis

c. exchange genetic information during  prophase I of meiosis

d. all of the above

 

9. The duration of the cell cycle________

a. is the same for all cells

b. is faster in rapidly dividing cells such as blood cells

c. is quickest in neurons

d. none of the above

 

10. Mitosis results in_________

a. clones which are identical to the parental cell

b. mature sperm cells

c. genetic exchange between homologous chromosome pairs

d. all of the above

 

11.  During ________ of mitosis, two new nuclear membranes form prior to cytokinesis

            a. metaphase

b. prophase

c. telophase

d. anaphase

 

12. Meiosis _______ the parental chromosome number

a. doubles

b. reduces

c. maintains

d. isolates

 

13.  In some of his experiments, Mendel studied the inheritance patterns of two characteristics at once-flower color and pod color, for example.  He did this to find out

a.  whether genes for the two characteristics are inherited together or separately

b.  how many genes are responsible for determining a characteristic

c.  whether genes are on chromosomes

d.  how many different genes a pea plant has

 

14. Alleles are__________

a. pairs of homologous chromosomes

b. B (brown eyes) and b(blue eyes)

c. different molecular forms of the same gene

d. both b and c

 

15. A homozygote has a ___________ for the trait being studied

a. pair of identical alleles

b. pair of nonidentical alleles

c. different gene for the same trait from each parent

d. both b and c

 

16. F1 offspring of a monohybrid cross DD x dd are___________

a. all BB

b. all Bb

c. ˝ BB and ˝ bb

 

17. Second generation offspring from a cross are called the __________

a. F1 generation

b. F2 generation

c. hybrid generation

d. yuppie generation

 

18. Utilizing the Punnett square, offspring of the cross, Bb x Bb will show a genotypic ratio of _______

a. 3BB:1Bb:1bb

b. 1BB:1bb

c. 1BB:2Bb:1bb

d. 1Bb:3bb

 

19. Crosses between F1 individuals resulting from the parental cross AABB x aabb lead to F2 phenotypic rations close to ____

a. 1:1

b. 3:2:1

c. 9:3:3:1

d. 1:1:1:1

 

20. BBcc x bbCC is an example of a_______

a. dihybrid cross

b. monohybrid cross

c. homozygous condition

d.     phenotype

 

21.  A procedure in which fluid is withdrawn during pregnancy and analyzed for genetic defects in the   fetus is called_________

a.  Tay-sach’s testing

b. amniocentesis

c. chorionic villus sampling

d. none of the above

 

22.  Which of the following conditions is not a recessive disorder?

            a. cystic fibrosis

            b. sickle-cell anemia

            c. Huntington’s disease

            d.  Tay-Sach’s disease

 

23.  _______ refers to an individuals observable traits, such as blue eyes.

            a.  phenotype

            b. genotype

            c. hybrid

            d. none of the above

 

24. Directional selection

a. eliminate uncommon forms of alleles

b. shifts allele frequencies in a steady, consistent direction

c. forms intermediate forms of a trait

d. works against adaptive traits

 

25. Disruptive selection

a. eliminates uncommon forms of alleles

b. shifts allele frequency in a steady, consistent direction

c. favors extreme forms of a trait

d. both b and c

 

26. Natural selection may occur when there are

a. differences in adaptiveness of forms of a trait to prevailing environmental conditions

b. differences in survival and reproduction among individuals that differ in one or more traits

c. both a and b

d. none of the above

 

27. Stabilizing selection

a. favors intermediate forms of a trait

b. works against adaptive traits

c. used as a strategy to defend against parasites

d. none of the above

 

28. Genetic drift is

a. the only source of new alleles in a population

b. represents immigration and/or emigration to change the allele frequency

c. a change in population allele frequency due to chance alone

d. differences in survival and reproduction among individual populations

 

29. Antibiotic resistance is an example of

a. directional selection

b. disruptive selection

c. stabilizing selection

d. sexual selection

 

30.  A procedure in which fetal tissue is removed at about 8 weeks of pregnancy and analyzed for genetic defects is called_________

a.  genetic counseling

b. amniocentesis

c. chorionic villus sampling

d. none of the above

 

31.  ________is a dominant genetic disorder in that _______ of the parents must be carriers for an offspring to be afflicted with the disease

a. cystic fibrosis; both

b. Huntington’s disease; only one

c. sickle-cell anemia; only one

d.  Tay-Sach’s disease; both

 

32.  Which of the following correctly ranks the structures in order of size, from smallest to largest?

a.   nucleotide-codon-gene-chromosome

b.   chromosome-gene-nucleotide-codon

c.    nucleotide-chromosome-gene-codon

d.    chromosome-nucleotide-gene-codon

 

33. The nucleotide sequence of a DNA codon is CTG.  A messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule with a complementary codon is transcribed from the DNA.  In the process of protein synthesis, a transfer RNA (tRNA) anticodon pairs with the mRNA codon.  What is the nucleotide sequence of the tRNA codon?

a. CAT

b. GTC

c. GUC

d. CUG

 

34.  Viruses such as Ebola and HIV contain an enzyme called ___________ that allows them to make _________ from __________

a.  DNA polymerase; DNA; DNA

b. reverse transcriptase; RNA; DNA

c. reverse transcriptase; DNA; RNA

d. RNA ligase; DNA from RNA

 

35.  Initiation of ___________ occurs when tRNA and mRNA converge at the _________subunit of a ________________

a. transcription; main; Golgi complex

b. translation; small; smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c. translation; small; ribosome

d. translation; large; ribosome

 

36.  The START codon of a messenger RNA molecule codes for the first amino acid of a protein, which is__________, whereas the STOP codon codes for __________________

a. methionine; no amino acids

b. adenine; glutamine

c. valine; no amino acids

d. methionine; tRNA

 

37.  During___________, DNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA

a. DNA replication

b. translation

c. reverse transcription

d. transcription

 

38.  _____is responsible for delivering ___________ to the ribosomes during translation

a. an mRNA codon; amino acids

b. transfer RNA; amino acids

c. ribosomal RNA; RNA polymerase

d. RNA polymerase; amino acids

 

39.  Studies by Hershey-Chase on viruses in 1952 proved that_________

a. viral protein is injected into the host cell

b. DNA is the hereditary material

c.  viruses are prokaryotic organisms

d. none of the above

 

40.  A mutation in the p53 protein could result in__________________

a. a defect in the cell cycle checkpoint, leading to uncontrolled cell division

b. cancer

c. meiosis instead of mitosis

d. both a and b